A&P II Exam 2 Chapter 16

148 flashcards

What is the primary function of hormones?: act as chemical messengers that regulate the metabolic function of cells in the body
Which of the following is NOT representative of endocrine glands?: They use ducts to secrete their products into the surrounding tissue fluid.
Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?: adenoids
Steroid hormones are synthesized from amino acids.: False
Which of the following statements is true of amino acid-based hormones?: They require a receptor in the plasma membrane.
John tells you that cholesterol is bad and should be eliminated from your diet. You explain to him that cholesterol is important. Which of the following hormones is synthesized from cholesterol?: testosterone
The amplification of the signal from a water-soluble hormone is achieved through an increase in _______.: cAMP in the cytoplasm
Water-soluble hormones affect target cells by binding to __________.: plasma membrane receptors
What is the role of activated protein kinases? (Best Answer): Phosphorylate proteins
Cyclic AMP is degraded by __________.: phosphodiesterase
What property of a hormone would allow it to pass unassisted through a plasma membrane?: lipid-soluble
Virtually all amino acid-based hormones exert their signaling effects through intracellular ________.: second messengers
The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________.: the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
Steroid hormones exert their action by ________.: entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
Which of the following is not a major type of stimulus that triggers endocrine glands to manufacture and release hormones?: enzymatic
Low blood glucose concentration and high blood potassium concentration are examples of __________ stimuli for an endocrine gland.: humoral
The parathyroid glands respond to which type of stimulus?: humoral
Both "turn on" factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and "turn off" factors (feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system.: True
What determines whether a particular cell is able to respond to a hormone?: the presence of a specific hormone receptor
Up-regulation involves the loss of receptors and prevents the target cells from overreacting to persistently high hormone levels.: False
Which of the following occurs in situations where different hormones produce the same effects at the same target cell and their combined effects are amplified?: synergism
Which of the following is characteristic of water-soluble hormones?: acting through second messengers at their target cells
Hypersecretion of what hormone can produce the effects of gigantism, as seen in the individual on the right in this image?: growth hormone (GH)
Where is thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) made?: hypothalamus
Which of these would be an effect of an excess of thyroid hormones?: A would release less TRH.
Which hormone aids in water reabsorption?: antidiuretic hormone
The various hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary that regulate the secretion of hormones from other endocrine organs are called __________.: tropins
Which hormone stimulates mammary glands to produce milk in nursing mothers?: prolactin
Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the ________.: hypophyseal portal system
Which anterior pituitary hormone does NOT target another endocrine gland?: growth hormone (GH)
As a result of stress, the anterior pituitary releases ________, which stimulates release of hormones from the adrenal cortex that retain sodium and water, increase blood sugar, and begin breaking down fats.: ACTH
Calcitonin is the main regulator of blood calcium levels.: False
Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine.: True
If a person's parathyroids are responding properly to a drop in blood calcium, which of the following should result?: Less calcium will be excreted in the urine by the kidneys.
Which of the following is NOT a parathyroid gland mechanism to maintain adequate levels of blood calcium?: inhibition of calcitonin synthesis
The single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood is ________.: parathyroid hormone
What hormone is released by the anterior pituitary to target the adrenal cortex when the body is under stress?: adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Which of these conditions would promote aldosterone release from the adrenal glands?: A drop in blood pressure is sensed in the kidney.
Which of the following pairs correctly matches the adrenal gland structure with the class of hormones it produces?: zona glomerulosa: mineralocorticoids
The adrenal medulla is stimulated to release catecholamines during a stress response.: True
Atrial natriuretic peptide secreted by the heart has exactly the opposite function of __________ secreted by the zona glomerulosa.: aldosterone
Gluconeogenesis, the formation of glucose from fats and proteins, is due to the action of ________.: cortisol
How do glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress?: by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
Upon landing at the airport in Lagos, Nigeria, Eric feels wide awake even though the local time is 11pm. Which synthetic hormone supplement could he administer to help adjust to the new time zone?: melatonin
Melatonin ________.: is responsible for regulating the sleep cycle
Which of the following triggers the release of glucagon?: prolonged fasting
Which of the following hormones has significantly different effects when it is released in males instead of females?: follicle-stimulating hormone
Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the ________.: thymus gland
Which of the following hormones suppresses appetite and increases energy expenditure? A&P Exam 2 Chapter 17: leptin
Which of the following is not a function of blood?: hormone production
Which of the following is NOT regulated by blood?: nutrient levels
What is a hematocrit?: the percentage of erythrocytes in a whole blood sample
Which of these is true of the materials making up the buffy coat in centrifuged blood?: They are intermediate in density between erythrocytes and plasma.
In a centrifuged sample of blood, what should not be in the plasma portion of the sample?: platelets
Which plasma constituent is the main contributor to clotting?: fibrinogen
Which of the following is NOT a normal characteristic of blood?: neutral pH of 7.0
Which blood component primarily contributes to plasma osmotic pressure?: albumin
Which of the following is true of the structure of an erythrocyte?: Erythrocytes can bend and twist to fit through vessels.
How many oxygen molecules can be transported by one hemoglobin molecule?: four
Which of the formed elements is present in the greatest concentration? A&P Exam 2 Chapter 17: erythrocytes
Choose the statement that is true concerning hemoglobin.: It is composed of four protein chains and four heme groups.
Which of the following does NOT stimulate erythrocyte production?: hyperventilating
Bilirubin is released into the blood as old or damaged red blood cells are broken down by macrophages. Which organ is responsible for removing bilirubin from the blood?: liver
Which of the following anemias is correctly matched with its description?: pernicious anemia: results from a vitamin B12 deficiency
Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?: hypoxia of EPO-producing cells
What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?: kidney
From which cell do all of the granulocytes descend?: myeloblast
Which type of leukocyte provides protection against parasitic worms?: eosinophil
Which of the following leukocytes is not correctly matched with its function? neutrophils: produce antibodies monocytes: develop into macrophages lymphocytes: immune response against viral infections basophils: inflammation A&P Exam 2 Chapter 17: neutrophils: produce antibodies
Which granular leukocytes act as our body's bacteria killers and would dramatically increase in number during a bacterial infection?: neutrophils
On a blood smear slide prepared using Wright's stain, you observe a large cell with a U-shaped nucleus and pale-blue cytoplasm. This cell is most likely a(n) __________.: monocyte
You are awaiting the white blood cell differential results for a patient who presented with a ruptured appendix and peritonitis. Which type of leukocyte do you expect to be most elevated over its normal value?: Neutrophils
What factor stimulates platelet formation?: thrombopoietin
The cells responsible for producing platelets are called ________.: megakaryocytes
What part of the pathway to produce platelets is shared with other formed elements?: hematopoietic stem cell (hemocytoblast)
Hemostasis is important for __________.: stoppage of bleeding
Which of the following represents a difference between extrinsic and intrinsic blood clotting pathways?: One is faster than the other.
What enzyme is responsible for dissolving the blood clot after regeneration of the vessel wall is complete?: plasmin
Which of the following would NOT lead to a bleeding disorder? A&P Exam 2 Chapter 17: excess calcium in the diet
Which of the following statements is true?: Type O blood can safely be given to recipients with type B blood.
Which ABO blood type is considered to be the universal recipient?: AB
Which of the following scenarios could result in HDN (hemolytic disease of the newborn)?: B-negative female pregnant with an AB-positive baby
Choose the incompatible transfusion.: Donate type B blood to a recipient with type O blood.
A mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous because ________.: preformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells
Which two factors below make rapid and substantial blood loss life threatening?: loss of blood pressure and loss of oxygen carrying capacity
loss of blood pressure and loss of oxygen carrying capacity A&P 2 Chapter 18 Exam 2 Questions: O negative
Which layer of the heart wall contracts and is composed primarily of cardiac muscle tissue?: myocardium
Which of these vessels returns blood to the left atrium of the heart?: pulmonary veins
Which description of the heart or its coverings is INCORRECT?: The parietal layer of the serous pericardium is also known as the epicardium of the heart wall.
Which statement is correct regarding the ventricles?: The right ventricle empties into the pulmonary trunk
The receiving chambers of the heart include the ________.: right and left atria
Which is NOT a vessel that brings blood directly into the right atrium?: pulmonary vein
Which valve is located between the right atrium and ventricle?: tricuspid valve
Which of the following descriptions does not describe atrioventricular (AV) valves?: formed from pocket-like cusps
The role of the chordae tendineae is to open the AV valves at the appropriate time.: False
Prevents backflow into the left ventricle.: aortic semilunar valve
Prevents backflow into the right atrium. A&P 2 Chapter 18 Exam 2 Questions: tricuspid valve
Prevents backflow into the left atrium.: Mitral (bicuspid) valve
Atrioventricular (AV) valve with two flaps.: Mitral (bicuspid) valve
Atrioventricular (AV) valve with three flaps.: tricuspid valve
The __________ carries oxygen-poor venous blood from above the diaphragm from areas of the upper body and extremities into the right atrium.: superior vena cava
The ________carries oxygen-poor venous blood of the coronary circulation into the right atrium.: coronary sinus
The _______ carries oxygen-poor venous blood from below the diaphragm from the areas of the lower body and extremities into the right atrium.: inferior vena cava
Into which chamber of the heart do the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus return deoxygenated blood?: right atrium
Which chamber of the heart sends oxygenated blood directly to the systemic circuit via the aorta?: left ventricle
Which of the following is a branch of the right coronary artery?: posterior interventricular artery
Blood enters the left and right coronary arteries directly from which vessel or chamber?: aorta
Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?: left atrium
A&P 2 Chapter 18 Exam 2 Questions The right side of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump.: False
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________.: pump blood with greater pressure
Which statement regarding cardiac muscle structure is accurate?: Myofibrils of cardiac muscle tissue vary in diameter and branch extensively
Why are gap junctions a vital part of the intercellular connection of cardiac muscles?: Gap junctions allow action potentials to spread to connected cells.
What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells?: intercalated discs
If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, ________.: tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action
Convey(s) the impulse throughout the ventricular walls: purkinje fibers
Set(s) the pace for the entire heart: SA node
Convey(s) the impulse down the interventricular septum: bundle branches
Electrical link(s) between atria and ventricles: AV bundle
Delay(s) occurs here while atria contract: AV node
Link(s) between the SA node and AV node A&P 2 Chapter 18 Exam 2 Questions: internodal pathways
Trace the pathway of stimulation through the heart. Which of these pathways shows stimulation in the correct order?: AV node, AV bundle, interventricular septum, subendothelium
Which of the following structures receives the depolarization wave from the atria and passes impulses onto the ventricles?: AV node
What does the QRS wave of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represent?: ventricular depolarization
The P wave on an electrocardiogram represents __________.: atrial depolarization
The "pacemaker potential" of pacemaker cells is produced by the opening of ________ at the end of an action potential.: slow Na+ channels
The plateau phase of an action potential in cardiac muscle cells is due to the ________.: influx of Ca2+ through slow Ca2+ channels
The beginning of the QRS complex of the electrocardiogram (ECG) immediately precedes which of the following events?: closing of the atrioventricular valves
Which of the following can be heard with a stethoscope most easily?: Closing of atrioventricular valves
During which phase of the cardiac cycle do the valves leading to and from the ventricles completely close and blood volume in the ventricles remains constant as the heart walls contract?: isovolumetric contraction phase
What causes heart sounds? A&P 2 Chapter 18 Exam 2 Questions: heart valve closure
Which best describes the isovolumetric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle?: As ventricular systole starts, the AV valves are closed and the semilunar valves are closed. Because the ventricles are contracting and both valves are closed, pressure increases rapidly leading to ejection.
The first heart sound (the "lub" of the "lub-dup") is caused by __________.: closure of the atrioventricular valves
Which of the following terms is correctly matched to its description?: quiescent period: period of total heart relaxation
The atrioventricular (AV) valves are closed ________.: when the ventricles are in systole
Calculate the cardiac output if heart rate (HR) is 90 beats per minute, stroke volume (SV) is 110 ml divided by beat, end diastolic volume (EDV) is 140 ml, and end systolic volume (ESV) is 30 ml.: 9.9 L/min
An increase in sympathetic stimulation of the heart would increase stroke volume by increasing __________.: contractility
the volume of blood in one ventricle after contraction: end systolic volume (esv)
the volume of blood in one ventricle before contraction: end diastolic volume (edv)
the volume of blood per minute pumped out by one ventricle A&P 2 Chapter 18 Exam 2 Questions: cardiac output (co)
the number of heart beats per minute: heart rate (HR)
the volume of blood per minute flowing into one atrium: venous return (vr)
the volume of blood per heart beat pumped out by one ventricle: stroke volume (sv)
Calculate the stroke volume if the end diastolic volume (EDV) is 135 mL/beat and the end systolic volume (ESV) is 60 mL/beat.: 75 mL/beat
Which of the following INCREASES stroke volume?: exercise
Which of the following would decrease stroke volume?: increasing afterload
What best describes afterload?: back pressure exerted by arterial blood
As your skeletal muscles contract during physical activity, more blood is returned to the heart. Which variable would be affected and what would be the outcome of this action?: Preload would be increased, which would result in a larger cardiac output.
Which of the following would increase cardiac output?: epinephrine